TRB PG Assistant - Hypersensitivity, autoimmunity, immunodeficiencies, vaccines Online Test (MCQ Quiz)

1. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is typically mediated by IgE antibodies and involves mast cell degranulation?

A) Type I (Immediate) B) Type II (Cytotoxic) C) Type III (Immune Complex) D) Type IV (Delayed)

2. Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening form of which hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV

3. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Type II hypersensitivity reactions?

A) Formation of soluble immune complexes B) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) C) T-cell mediated inflammation D) Allergic asthma

4. Goodpasture syndrome, characterized by antibodies against basement membrane antigens in the lungs and kidneys, is an example of which hypersensitivity type?

A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV

5. Type III hypersensitivity reactions are primarily mediated by:

A) IgE antibodies B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes C) Immune complexes of antigens and antibodies D) Mast cells

6. Serum sickness, a systemic reaction following administration of foreign serum, is a classic example of:

A) Type I hypersensitivity B) Type II hypersensitivity C) Type III hypersensitivity D) Type IV hypersensitivity

7. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is T-cell mediated and typically occurs 24-72 hours after exposure to an antigen?

A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV

8. The Mantoux test (PPD skin test) for tuberculosis is a diagnostic example of which hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV

9. Contact dermatitis, such as that caused by poison ivy, is primarily mediated by which type of immune cell?

A) B cells B) Plasma cells C) Helper T cells (Th1) D) Mast cells

10. Autoimmunity is a condition where the immune system mistakenly attacks:

A) Foreign pathogens B) Cancer cells C) The body's own tissues D) Allergens

11. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease affecting the thyroid gland, leading to hyperthyroidism?

A) Hashimoto's thyroiditis B) Graves' disease C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus D) Rheumatoid arthritis

12. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that primarily targets:

A) Pancreatic beta cells B) Joint synovium C) Thyroid follicular cells D) Myelin sheath

13. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disease characterized by the destruction of:

A) Adrenal cortex cells B) Neurons in the brain C) Beta cells in the pancreas D) Red blood cells

14. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease primarily affecting:

A) The skin B) The nervous system C) The joints D) The liver

15. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that damages the:

A) Insulin-producing cells B) Myelin sheath of nerve cells C) Heart valves D) Kidney glomeruli

16. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs, including the skin, joints, kidneys, and brain. It is characterized by the production of autoantibodies against:

A) Mitochondrial proteins B) Nuclear antigens (e.g., DNA, histones) C) Erythrocyte surface antigens D) Thyroid peroxidase

17. Immunodeficiency disorders are characterized by:

A) An overactive immune response B) A weakened or absent immune response C) Autoimmune attacks on self-tissues D) Allergic reactions to common substances

18. Primary immunodeficiencies are typically:

A) Acquired due to infection or environmental factors B) Caused by genetic defects C) A result of aging D) Induced by medications

19. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare genetic disorders characterized by:

A) Deficiency in only B cells B) Deficiency in only T cells C) Deficiency in both B and T lymphocytes D) Overproduction of antibodies

20. Which of the following is a common secondary immunodeficiency disorder?

A) DiGeorge syndrome B) X-linked agammaglobulinemia C) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

21. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which primarily targets:

A) B cells B) T helper cells (CD4+ T cells) C) Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells) D) Macrophages only

22. A deficiency in Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) leads to which primary immunodeficiency disorder?

A) Selective IgA deficiency B) X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA) C) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) D) Hyper-IgM syndrome

23. Vaccines primarily work by:

A) Directly killing pathogens B) Stimulating the immune system to develop memory C) Blocking pathogen entry into cells D) Neutralizing toxins produced by pathogens

24. Which type of vaccine contains weakened, but still living, microorganisms?

A) Inactivated vaccines B) Subunit vaccines C) Live-attenuated vaccines D) Toxoid vaccines

25. The MMR vaccine (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) is an example of a:

A) Live-attenuated vaccine B) Inactivated vaccine C) Subunit vaccine D) Toxoid vaccine

26. Inactivated vaccines contain microorganisms that have been killed by:

A) Heat or chemicals B) Genetic engineering C) Toxin production D) Antigen presentation

27. The polio vaccine developed by Jonas Salk is an example of which type?

A) Live-attenuated B) Inactivated C) Subunit D) Toxoid

28. Subunit vaccines contain only specific pieces of a pathogen, such as:

A) The whole virus B) The entire bacterium C) Antigens (e.g., proteins, polysaccharides) D) Viral genetic material

29. The Hepatitis B vaccine is a common example of a:

A) Live-attenuated vaccine B) Inactivated vaccine C) Subunit vaccine D) Toxoid vaccine

30. Toxoid vaccines are made from:

A) Weakened live bacteria B) Killed viruses C) Inactivated toxins produced by bacteria D) Purified bacterial cell wall components

31. The tetanus and diphtheria vaccines (DTaP) are examples of:

A) Live-attenuated vaccines B) Inactivated vaccines C) Subunit vaccines D) Toxoid vaccines

32. Adjuvants are substances added to vaccines to:

A) Preserve the vaccine B) Enhance the immune response C) Reduce the number of doses required D) Prevent allergic reactions

33. Herd immunity occurs when a sufficient proportion of a population is immune to an infectious disease, making its spread from person to person unlikely. This is often achieved through:

A) Individual medical treatments B) Widespread vaccination C) Antibiotic use D) Quarantine measures

34. Which of the following is NOT a common mechanism of autoimmunity?

A) Molecular mimicry B) Bystander activation C) Failure of self-tolerance D) Foreign antigen neutralization

35. The presence of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) is a hallmark of which autoimmune disease?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Type 1 diabetes C) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) D) Graves' disease

36. A patient presents with a history of recurrent bacterial infections, low levels of immunoglobulins, and is diagnosed with X-linked agammaglobulinemia. This is a primary immunodeficiency affecting:

A) T cells B) B cells and antibody production C) Phagocytes D) Complement system

37. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the formation of immune complexes that deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage?

A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV

38. The mechanism of action for a messenger RNA (mRNA) vaccine, like some COVID-19 vaccines, involves:

A) Introducing a weakened live virus B) Introducing inactivated viral particles C) Instructing host cells to produce a viral antigen D) Introducing purified viral surface proteins

39. Autoimmune polyendocrinopathy-candidiasis-ectodermal dysplasia (APECED) syndrome is associated with mutations in the AIRE gene, leading to a failure of:

A) Peripheral tolerance B) Central tolerance C) IgA production D) NK cell function

40. Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical manifestation of a severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?

A) Failure to thrive B) Chronic diarrhea C) Recurrent opportunistic infections D) Normal antibody levels

41. The Tuberculin Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) test elicits a positive reaction due to the activation of which type of immune cells?

A) IgE-producing B cells B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes C) Memory T cells D) Mast cells

42. Allergies are a manifestation of an overactive immune response to otherwise harmless substances called:

A) Autoantigens B) Pathogens C) Allergens D) Toxins

43. Which immunoglobulin is primarily involved in Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE

44. A patient with a history of severe reactions to bee stings is advised to carry an epinephrine auto-injector. Epinephrine counteracts the effects of mediators released during which type of hypersensitivity?

A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV

45. Which of the following is a secondary immunodeficiency caused by a viral infection?

A) Chronic Granulomatous Disease B) DiGeorge Syndrome C) HIV/AIDS D) Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

46. The development of antibodies against self-antigens is a key feature of:

A) Immunodeficiency B) Allergy C) Autoimmunity D) Immunosuppression

47. Which component of the immune system is primarily targeted and destroyed by HIV?

A) B cells B) CD8+ T cells C) CD4+ T cells D) Macrophages

48. Which type of vaccine uses a harmless vector, such as an adenovirus, to deliver genetic material encoding a pathogen's antigen?

A) Subunit vaccine B) Toxoid vaccine C) Viral vector vaccine D) mRNA vaccine

49. A deficiency in adenosine deaminase (ADA) is a cause of:

A) X-linked agammaglobulinemia B) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) C) Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) D) Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS)

50. Which of the following is a classic example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Asthma B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Allergic contact dermatitis D) Serum sickness

Hypersensitivity, autoimmunity, immunodeficiencies, vaccines - Online Test

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